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Old 06-18-2012, 02:39 PM
ashiqputtur ashiqputtur is offline
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Default عطف البيان and البدل

What is the difference between عطف البيان and البدل
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Old 06-20-2012, 02:02 PM
benss benss is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ashiqputtur View Post
What is the difference between عطف البيان and البدل
Salāmou'aleikoum wa rahmatoullāh wa barakātouh,

the issue you've raised is a very common but very interesting.

Since you've been waiting for a while, I've decided to take the plunge and try to give you humbly some insight about the "difference" between the عطف البيان and the البدل.

I would before to mentionned that I don't know if the notion of عطف البيان is tackled in the end of book 3 (I don't know because I haven't finished book 3 yet). If not, then it is not suprising because some grammarians pointed out that there is not really a consensus to make a distinciton between the عطف البيان and the البدل as, according to some school of thoughts, the first falls into the second category. By the way, this could be one of reason why Sheikh Al-faDīl Abdu Rahīm did not tackled this issue, if he indeed didn't of course . At least, what I know so far is that at the begining of Book 3, it is cleary mentionned that the التوابع are 4 (al-3aTf, al-na3t, al-badal, al-tawkid), so that the potential 5th (عطف البيان) is not mentionned. Anyway...



....There are some difference between both pertaining to usage.

Mainly:
  • As its name suggests, the عطف البيان is a noun that clarifies/qualifies its matbū3 (i.e the noun preceding it). In other words, the 3aTf bayān comes to specify any ambiguity about the matbū3, had this latter been mentionned alone. So, we then deduced that in the construction: ma3tūf/matbū3 + 3aTf bayān, the first element is the one which matter fundamentally, the second coming only for clarification (للإيضاح والبيان) or for specification (للتخصيص). Got it ? Right.
  • As for the badal, the matbū3 somehow introduce the badal, so that in this case the most important element is the badal it self and not the matbū3 as it was the case for the 3aTf bayān.

So you seen here that the difference is very sutble and depends on someone's interpretation.




Let us put an example for clarification purposes. If I say to you for instance:

مررتُ بأخيك محمدٍ

Here, محمدٍ can be seen as 3aTf bayān in the sense that it clarifies which brother I'm talking about. Had you had many brothers, not mentionning محمدٍ would have placed some ambiguity in my speech. For that reason, محمدٍ comes here to clarify/specify (لِيُبيّنَ) the matbū3 (بأخيك ).

However, had you have one single brother then محمدٍ woud have been considered as a badal, since both بأخيك and محمدٍ are interchangeable, the first coming only to introduce the second.

Hope I was clear. There are other differences related to the usage of both, but what I've explained so far is the main difference I've came across so far in my study.

Wa-llāhou-a3lām.

P.S: Does anyone know if the notion of عطف البيان is a tackled in book 3 please.

Jazākumu-llāhou-khairane
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  #3  
Old 06-21-2012, 02:36 PM
irf2k irf2k is offline
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See Dr Abdur Rahim's answer here:
http://www.lqtoronto.com/forums/showthread.php?t=1125
 

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