grammetical analysis of nimatil bid'atu hadhihi

[azeemkhan]

assalamo alaykum,

what is the grammatical analysis of the following saying of sayyiduna Umar radhi Allahu anh?

نعمتِ البدعةُ هذه

i can figure out that البدعةُ is badal here and هذه is the mubtada but then why نعمتِ ?

[Tanweer]

Originally Posted by azeemkhan

نعمتِ البدعةُ هذه

Brother, did you write the arabic words correctly ? I mean, I checked an online Bukhari book. In Book 31 (or 32, according to some books) (Kitabus salatut tarawih - book of tarawih prayer), Umar bin khattab (R.) is quoted as

قَالَ عُمَرُ نِعْمَ الْبِدْعَةُ هَذِهِ،

As for the word Ni'ima, we see in Quran:

[3:173] وَقَالُوا حَسْبُنَا اللَّـهُ وَنِعْمَ الْوَكِيلُ

Where, Ni'ima is Fi'il madhi, meaning "to be excellent"

If this is the case, then I would say that Hadhihi = Mubtada, Al-bid'atu = Badal, Ni'ima = Jumlah Fi'iliyah Khabar. Translation: "This innovation has been excellent."

Allah knows best.

[azeemkhan]

yes, what i wrote is correct, you can Google it, and you'll find lots of links of Arabic websites that are quoting it from sayyiduna Umar raDi Allahu anh exactly the same.

[Tanweer]

Originally Posted by azeemkhan

yes, what i wrote is correct, you can Google it, and you'll find lots of links of Arabic websites that are quoting it from sayyiduna Umar raDi Allahu anh exactly the same.

OK, no problem. I actually looked into a Bukhari book and found it different from what you wrote.

Anyway,Ni'imat is probably the feminine (she became excellent) of Ni'ima (he became excellent). After all, Bid'at ends with ta marbuta, so probably is treated as feminine.

Then:
Hadhihi = Mubtada, Al-bid'atu = badal, Ni'imat = Jumlah Fi'iliyah khabar (feminine verb).

[azeemkhan]

actually i want to know what kasrah is doing there in نعمتِ ? also it seems that there are two versions of hadith sharif, one with نعمتِ and the other one with نِعْمَ, if i take your last explanation then how would you analyze the one which you quoted with نِعْمَ?

البدعة cannot be masculine and feminine both.

sorry, if i am arguing too much, i want to understand the construct, and it has become more interesting as in one hadith it is نعمتِ and in another it is نعمَ ending in fatha.

[Tanweer]

Originally Posted by azeemkhan

actually i want to know what kasrah is doing there in نعمتِ ?

This kasra is there to avoid two sukuns side by side. Please see page 30 of the English key of Book 1. There, you will see how Dhahabat al-bintu changes to Dhahabati L-bintu.

[Tanweer]

Originally Posted by azeemkhan

البدعة cannot be masculine and feminine both.

This issue is a little advanced and I hope more knowledgeable brothers will help us on this. As far as I know, (1) if the doer (fail) is biologically feminine, then the verb must be feminine. (2) if the doer is only grammatically feminine, then the verb may be masculine or feminine.

See, Bid'at is not a woman, so it is not biologically feminine. It is only feminine from grammatical point of view. So a masculine verb (Ni'ma) may be OK.

Let's wait for the responses of other members.

[irf2k]

Originally Posted by azeemkhan

assalamo alaykum,

what is the grammatical analysis of the following saying of sayyiduna Umar radhi Allahu anh?

نعمتِ البدعةُ هذه

i can figure out that البدعةُ is badal here and هذه is the mubtada but then why نعمتِ ?

This seems to be a verbal sentence. So why would there be a mubtada?
An ismo isharah that comes after a noun comes as naat, so Hazehi is naat.
The kasrah on ta is - as brother Tanweer indicated - to avoid the meeting of 2 vowel less consonants.

[azeemkhan]

thanks, now i got it, نِعْمَ is the verb and taa is the taau taa'neethi, the fail is البدعةُ and هذه is na'at, but i haven't come across هذه being used as naat in book-1. i've just started book 2.

but still one question remains that in another similar hadith sharif that brother tanweer mentioned it is نِعْمَ not نعمتِ, does it no make any difference, or both can be used as what brother tanweer explains?

(1) if the doer (fail) is biologically feminine, then the verb must be feminine. (2) if the doer is only grammatically feminine, then the verb may be masculine or feminine.

[irf2k]

Waalaikum Assalaam
You will learn all these points in book three.
May I suggest that you be patient and follow the methodology that Dr Abdur Rahim is using in this course.
He does not 'throw' everything on us. He introduces the concepts step by step so not to overwhelm us.

Note: For agreement of verb with the subject see lesson 17 point 5 of book 2:
But. if the fā‘il is grammatically feminine noun, the verb may be feminine, e.g.:
خَرَجَتِ السَّيَّارَةُ.or خَرَجَ السَّيَّارَةُ. ‘The car went out.’