Confusion about defineteness of the mudhaf

[Abu Hamza]

As-salaamu-alaykum,

Alhamdoulillah, my family and I have been greatly benefiting from the Book 1 videos. In DVD5 ,Part B, 1st video, the brother gave an explanation that if the mudhaf ilayhi is definite then the mudhaf is automatically definite. Similarly, if the mudhaf ilayhi is indefinite then the mudhaf is automatically indefinite. However, in the English Key, in the explanation about mudhaf and mudhaf ilayhi, it says that 'the mudhaf is definite by position'. I would greatly appreciate a clarification on how can the mudhaf be indefinite.

Wa-alaykum salaam.

Abu Hamza

[mmp_31]

Originally Posted by Abu Hamza

As-salaamu-alaykum,

Alhamdoulillah, my family and I have been greatly benefiting from the Book 1 videos. In DVD5 ,Part B, 1st video, the brother gave an explanation that if the mudhaf ilayhi is definite then the mudhaf is automatically definite. Similarly, if the mudhaf ilayhi is indefinite then the mudhaf is automatically indefinite. However, in the English Key, in the explanation about mudhaf and mudhaf ilayhi, it says that 'the mudhaf is definite by position'. I would greatly appreciate a clarification on how can the mudhaf be indefinite.

Wa-alaykum salaam.

Abu Hamza

Walaikumsalaam

Mudhaf is definite

e.g
1) مسجد القرية جميل The Masjid of the Village is Beautiful

Now to understand the above example, remove القرية, then the sentence would become:

2) المسجد جميل The Masjid is Beautiful

From 1 and 2 it is understood that in example 1 مسجد does not have ال due to being mudhaf but once the mudhafilayh is dropped it becomes المسجد. This shows that although there isnt an ال on mudhaf in reality it is definite.

Now take the below example:

3) لبن بقرٍ حلوٌ Milk of a Cow is Sweet

If بقرٍ is removed it would become:

4) لبن حلو Milk is Sweet

I think this is what Brother Asif meant. Hope this helps.

[icarus]

Assalaamu alaikum brother.

Perhaps I can throw some more light on the subject.

You are absolutely correct when you say that if the mudaaf ilayhi is definite then the mudaaf is automatically definite. Similarly, if the mudaaf ilayhi is indefinite then the mudaaf is automatically indefinite.

It is important to notice, however, that when the mudaaf/mudaaf ilayhi construction is introduced in Book 1, Dr. Abdur Rahim ensures that the mudaaf ilayhi is ALWAYS definite so as not to confuse you at this early stage of your studies. And so the rule that the mudaaf is definite by position refers to its position in front of the definite mudaaf ilayhi that Dr Abdur Rahim has deliberately used. Examples of a mudaaf ilayhi being indefinite don't come until much later in the course.

As you progress in your studies and you are ready to understand the more complicated issues of grammar, Dr. Abdur Rahim gently introduces them to you without force-feeding you too much information at one time as other courses do. This is the genius of the respected Doctor that has given this course worldwide appeal and success.

If anyone has a different explanation on this rule, please don't hesitate to correct me.

Originally Posted by Abu Hamza

As-salaamu-alaykum,

Alhamdoulillah, my family and I have been greatly benefiting from the Book 1 videos. In DVD5 ,Part B, 1st video, the brother gave an explanation that if the mudhaf ilayhi is definite then the mudhaf is automatically definite. Similarly, if the mudhaf ilayhi is indefinite then the mudhaf is automatically indefinite. However, in the English Key, in the explanation about mudhaf and mudhaf ilayhi, it says that 'the mudhaf is definite by position'. I would greatly appreciate a clarification on how can the mudhaf be indefinite.

Wa-alaykum salaam.

Abu Hamza